Revenue Sharing & Luxury Tax
Posted: Tue Aug 14, 2012 9:23 pm
Am I correct that the cap on revenue sharing at 30% of profits is based off of a determination of profits after determination of the luxury tax? For example, Larry Coon has an e-mail today stating that the Lakers are expected to make a revenue sharing payment of $49.8 million this year. Does that mean that the Lakers are expected to make a post-tax profit of $166 million this year, and a bottom line profit of $116 million?