Football Question

[MHSL82]

I watched the Chiefs- Broncos game yesterday. The Broncos had a 2nd and 30 and there was a delay of game and unsportsmanlike conduct on both sides. The off-setting penalties happened after the snap (delay). The delay of game was, according to the ref, "declined." Why the hell would a team decline a delay of game when offsetting fouls cause the down to be replayed? Did the ref mess up the call? I could see declining if the down changed, but it was still second down. It was in the end of the third or beginning of the fourth if anyone has game rewind and wants to see it. The refs had a pretty long huddle after what I thought was just a delay if game (an obvious one).

The refs botched another two minute warning. The two minute warning had gone off and then the Chiefs went offsides. They called the offsides and then it went to the two minute warning. This was right after a catch and fumble (recovered by the Chiefs) was ruled incomplete and there was no evidence of it being incomplete, it just didn't have enough to overturn the call. Phill Simms called it a botched call how Bronco fans have a petition to remove him from announcing games for them.

[MHSL82]

This is what I read: Generally only one penalty can be enforced against a team on a particular play (there are some exceptions), so either the delay of game or the personal foul had to be declined.

Stupid rule, but informative. On off-setting penalty calls, there should be an exception. I understand not addig a 5yard to a 15 yard, if say, only Denver got the penalties.

Plus, they were dead ball fouls, not in the same play, so why the limitation?