Send players to Europe?

WiscoKing13 · Post #1 » by **WiscoKing13** » Fri Feb 13, 2009 2:33 am

So with europe wanting all the nba talent, I was wondering with players concent and an agreement from a europe team.

Can we ship NBA players to europe?

LarryCoon · Post #2 » by **LarryCoon** » Fri Feb 13, 2009 5:25 am

Dunkenstein · Post #3 » by **Dunkenstein** » Fri Feb 13, 2009 8:16 am

WiscoKing13 wrote:So with europe wanting all the nba talent, I was wondering with players concent and an agreement from a europe team.

Can we ship NBA players to europe?

I guess the answer depends on what you mean by "ship". If they went to Europe, would they have to play for a team, or could they just sit around cafes and drink pernod?

Are the players you're asking about under contract to a team and are willing to have their contracts bought out. Or are they free agents?

And who you mean by "we". Are you a team owner? An agent of a veteran free agent? An import-export trader? The owner of a cruise ship line?

And what makes you think that European teams want NBA players any more than they ever did?

WiscoKing13 · Post #4 » by **WiscoKing13** » Fri Feb 13, 2009 5:24 pm

I'm just saying is it within the CBA for a NBA team to pretty much trade a player to a euro team?
If the euro team will simply pick up the rest of the contract that is owed to the NBA player. The NBA team gets nothing in return beside the player coming off the books.
Of course this would have to happen with the player consent.

Post #5 » by **Three34** » Fri Feb 13, 2009 5:42 pm

Modern_epic · Post #6 » by **Modern_epic** » Fri Feb 13, 2009 10:10 pm

I'm not sure I agree with you Sham.

I mean, no is certainly true exactly as he described it, but if the team and player agree to a buyout for nothing (or anything up to the amount that is about to be offset anyway, really) and then the euro team signed him for the same terms as he was due, it is effectively what he is describing. Not that this would happen just like that, but it could, from what I know.

Also, this brings up a related question which I'm pretty sure has been answered before (probably a few times) but I've forgotten: any compensation going either way in this case would be a CBA no-no, right?