i've read it's 4 years/58 million but how did we get the 58 million number?
the way I read Larry Coon's FAQ is that the maximum offer (if you were a team looking to snatch jordan clarkson away from the lakers) to a 0-6 year player is 25% of the cap with 4.5% raises, providing you had the available cap room
specifically questions 16 and 45:
#16
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Years in NBA Max Salary 2011-12 2012-13 2013-14 2014-15 2015-16
0 - 6 25% of cap $12,922,194 $13,668,750 $13,701,250 $14,746,000 $16,407,500
7 - 9 30% of cap $15,506,632 $16,402,500 $16,441,500 $17,695,200 $19,689,000
10+ 35% of cap $18,091,071 $19,136,250 $19,181,750 $20,644,400 $22,970,500
#45
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If the raise in the third season exceeds the standard raise (4.5% of the salary in the first season of the contract), then an additional restriction exists. In order to determine how large the offer can be, the team doesn't just have to fit the first-year salary under the cap. Instead, they must fit the average salary in the entire contract under the cap. So a team $8 million under the cap is limited to offering a total of $24 million over three years, or $32 million over four years. If the offer sheet does not contain a third-season raise larger than 4.5% of the first-season salary, then they only have to fit the first season salary under the cap.
nowhere, does it say that the max offer CAN'T be the max contract
using the calculation of a 94 million dollar cap, that's a max starting salary (25% of cap) of 23.5 million and over 4 years with 4.5% raises, that's 100.5 million
i understand that as a RFA, the max salary in the first two years for a 2 year vet is the MLE*(1 + 1.045) which is 5.628 + 5.881 = 11.509 million, so why can't a team offer 100.5 mil over 4 years, providing they pay the remaining 89 million over years 3 and 4?
yet why is the max offer 58 mil, not 100.5 mil??
sorry if this is a stupid question