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does he get paid for both now?

I know that had he signed with an NBA team, he'd get same amount of money, just paid by 2 teams now instead of one.

But, since his new team isn't part of the NBA, is he going to get his guaranteed NBA salary PLUS the new salary?

Same rules apply to Kleiza as for Andersen, Blatche and anyone else who clears amnesty waivers and thereafter signs a professional basketball contract (whether it is in the NBA or elsewhere): viewtopic.php?f=4&t=1262974

Ya.

I'm talking about Kleiza because his new team isn't part of the NBA and doesn't have to oblige by NBA rules.

Kleiza still has one season remaining on his NBA contract. It will be paid out, and subjected to set off, as detailed in the link I provided above (which will depend on the salary for next season in his new contract, even if it is not an NBA contract):

1. Set-off Amount (from NBA contract) = (New Salary – $788,872) / 2
2. Total Compensation = ( Raptors: $4,600,000 – Set-off Amount ) + New Salary

answerthink wrote:Kleiza still has one season remaining on his NBA contract. It will be paid out, and subjected to set off, as detailed in the link I provided above (which will depend on the salary for next season in his new contract, even if it is not an NBA contract):

1. Set-off Amount (from NBA contract) = (New Salary – $788,872) / 2
2. Total Compensation = ( Raptors: $4,600,000 – Set-off Amount ) + New Salary

answerthink, 2 quick questions as this intrigues me with the foreign league situation. Both kind of goofy questions, but still wondering:

Is the new team's contract with Kleiza converted to US dollars before this (or canadian?)

Theoretically, is Toronto completely off the hook for paying him if he gets something from his new team that negates the setoff? Such as he gets 11 mil (not happening but hypothetical), 11,000,000-788,872 = 10,211,128/2 = over 5 mil, above the setoff.

All NBA contracts are paid out in US dollars. If Kleiza receives a new contract that does not pay out in US dollars, the amount will be converted to US dollars to facilitate the set-off calculation.

If Kleiza receives enough in his new contract such that the set-off amount is equal to or greater than the amount in which Toronto would otherwise owe him, then Toronto’s obligation would be extinguished in its entirety.

There are countries where facts such as salary are private and don't have to be reported, what would happen in that case?

The player will have an executed contract. The player's former NBA team may require that the player provide evidence (such as a copy of the contract) of the compensation to be earned.

Toronto has the leverage here, because if they don't get a copy of the new contract to determine the set-off, they can simply refuse to pay him the old pay based on him being in violation of the terms of his old contract. in addition, if I'm not mistaken, Kleiza will have to obtain FIBA clearance in order to switch leagues and sign with any non-NBA team, which will provide further protection for Toronto's contractual rights.

Both Kleiza and the Raptors have ongoing obligations to each other. I am not sure why we are talking about leverage. Perhaps I don’t know the details of the particular situation, but I see no reason why this would be contentious in any way.

The right to set-off, and all information necessary for its calculation, is protected under the terms of the collective bargaining agreement. If, for some reason, a player were to obstruct a team’s ability to determine its proper set-off, which in most cases would be very difficult to do, it would create a dispute which would be handled by a grievance arbitrator.