Dunleavy buyout and '18 cap hit
Posted: Mon Jan 9, 2017 5:49 pm
So, here is a (maybe?) gray area interpretation question.
-- We have seen that players can modify the guaranteed money in their deals -- see Lawson moving the last year to unguaranteed prior to his Houston trade in a not so great move in hindsight.
-- When players with guaranteed money across years are bought out for less than the guaranteed money, the cap hit is spread proportionately with the remaining guaranteed money. So, a hypothetical player owed 2.4m more this year and 1.6m next year that takes 2m instead of the full 4m,would have that show up as a cap hit of 1.2m this year (plus already incurred salary) and 0.8m next year.
Given those two, could a hypothetical player -- lets call him Dunleavy -- and a team -- for simplicity lets go with the first team alphabetically and Atlanta -- agree to make the last year of a contract fully unguaranteed. And then buyout the player for the full amount of the first year. In this case a buyout of the full 2.4 remaining this year, with the effect that there is no hit on the cap next year?
I could see a situation where a player could agree to give up 1.6m to get freedom now, but a team might only accept such a buyout if it did not add inflexible dead money to the next year's cap.
So, would such a move be viewed as a transparent switching of the buyout to 100% in the current year and thus forbidden? Or a follow on transaction that is also separately legal, and might not have happened if not for the first?
Any precedents for something like this? I'm trying to think of one, but all of the Sixers buyouts with 2 years were just at their full salary amounts with no giveback by the player.
-- We have seen that players can modify the guaranteed money in their deals -- see Lawson moving the last year to unguaranteed prior to his Houston trade in a not so great move in hindsight.
-- When players with guaranteed money across years are bought out for less than the guaranteed money, the cap hit is spread proportionately with the remaining guaranteed money. So, a hypothetical player owed 2.4m more this year and 1.6m next year that takes 2m instead of the full 4m,would have that show up as a cap hit of 1.2m this year (plus already incurred salary) and 0.8m next year.
Given those two, could a hypothetical player -- lets call him Dunleavy -- and a team -- for simplicity lets go with the first team alphabetically and Atlanta -- agree to make the last year of a contract fully unguaranteed. And then buyout the player for the full amount of the first year. In this case a buyout of the full 2.4 remaining this year, with the effect that there is no hit on the cap next year?
I could see a situation where a player could agree to give up 1.6m to get freedom now, but a team might only accept such a buyout if it did not add inflexible dead money to the next year's cap.
So, would such a move be viewed as a transparent switching of the buyout to 100% in the current year and thus forbidden? Or a follow on transaction that is also separately legal, and might not have happened if not for the first?
Any precedents for something like this? I'm trying to think of one, but all of the Sixers buyouts with 2 years were just at their full salary amounts with no giveback by the player.