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If the Sixers were to work out a sign-and-trade for Andre Iguodala, would he be a base-year player? The signing of Brand took us to the cap, but we are not officially over the cap.

Therefore, could they sign him to a deal for say 12 million to start and trade him for a 12 million dollar player from another team straight up?

He would be BYC

Thanks

Could someone please clear something up. There are rumors of Iguodala potentially being signed and traded, and these rumored trades would not work with his base-year status.

One rumor is Iggy/Evans for McGrady. Another is Iggy, Evans for Vince Carter and fillers. However, from a CBA point of view, these would not be possible if Iggy were base-year.

So my question is item #73 of Larry Coon's FAQ. It repeatedly states that base-year applies to teams OVER the cap. If the Sixers used their remaining cap space on Brand, then their team salary would immediately be at the set cap number. At this point they are neither OVER or UNDER the cap. They are at the cap.

Is it possible that Iguodala would not be BYC if we are AT the cap, but not OVER it?

You have to look at their team salary AFTER they sign Iguodala -- if it's over the cap, then BYC applies. If he signs for no more than his free agent amount ($8,414,667), then presumably the team would still be at the cap (which counts the same as under the cap), and BYC doesn't apply.

Presumably Iguodala would sign for more than $8,414,667, which means you should treat take rumors with a grain of salt. Cap worthiness is a pretty quick filter to determine whether something you hear about may be legitimate.