How good shooter was Wilt outside of "at rim" area?
Posted: Wed Feb 12, 2014 8:49 am
Wilt's fans often say that he had fadeaway shot and was good at that. Considering his poor FT% it's very unlikely he was good shooter, but lets check it.
I will use two first Wilt's seasons as example (he probably shot the most fadeaways in his first years). We know that he made 46.1% FG in 1960 and 50.9% in 1961. Knowing that we can see how his "at rim" and "non at rim" shots FG% would look if we assume what % of his all shots were "at rim" shots and how efficient he was making them.
Of course that's just assumptions, so I will present different possibilities and I would like you all to chose one which is in your opinion the closets to the truth. If neither is, then please explain why (show numbers, so how many Wilt's shots in your opinion were at rim shots and how efficient he was making them).
1. if 50% of all Wilt's shots were at rim shots then his FG% from all other types of shots would be:
1.1. if his at rim shots FG% was 60%, then it means his not at rim shots % was 32.2% in 1960 and 41.8% in 1961
1.2. if his at rim shots FG% was 70%, then it means his non at rim shots % was 22.2% in 1960 and 31.8% in 1961
1.3. if his at rim shots FG% was 80%, then it means his non at rim shots % was 12.2% in 1960 and 21.8% in 1961
2. if 60% of all Wilt's shots were at rim shots then his FG% from all other types of shots would be:
2.1. if his at rim shots FG% was 60%, then it means his not at rim shots % was 25.2% in 1960 and 37.3% in 1961
2.2. if his at rim shots FG% was 70%, then it means his non at rim shots % was 10.2% in 1960 and 22.3% in 1961
2.3. if his at rim shots FG% was 80%, then it means his non at rim shots % was -4.8% ("-" so it means it's impossible he shot 80% at rim and at rim shots were 60% of his all shots that year) in 1960 and 7.3% in 1961
3. if 70% of all Wilt's shots were at rim shots then his FG% from all other types of shots would be:
3.1. if his at rim shots FG% was 60%, then it means his not at rim shots % was 13.6% in 1960 and 29.7% in 1961
3.2. if his at rim shots FG% was 70%, then it means his non at rim shots % was -9.7% ("-" so it's impossible he shot 70% FG% at rim and at rim shots were 70% of his all shots) in 1960 and 6.4% in 1961
3.3. if his at rim shots FG% was 80%, then it means his non at rim shots % was -33.1% in 1960 and -16.9% in 1961 ("-" so in both cases it's impossible he shot 80% at rim and at rim shots were 70% of his all shots)
So 9 possibilities, which one is the most probably? In my opinion 3.1. or 2.2. and the only possibility he was decent (37-42%) "non at rim" shooter is if he shot only 60% at rim (and 60% from that area for big is really bad result) and "at rim" shots were no more than 60% of his all shots.
I will use two first Wilt's seasons as example (he probably shot the most fadeaways in his first years). We know that he made 46.1% FG in 1960 and 50.9% in 1961. Knowing that we can see how his "at rim" and "non at rim" shots FG% would look if we assume what % of his all shots were "at rim" shots and how efficient he was making them.
Of course that's just assumptions, so I will present different possibilities and I would like you all to chose one which is in your opinion the closets to the truth. If neither is, then please explain why (show numbers, so how many Wilt's shots in your opinion were at rim shots and how efficient he was making them).
1. if 50% of all Wilt's shots were at rim shots then his FG% from all other types of shots would be:
1.1. if his at rim shots FG% was 60%, then it means his not at rim shots % was 32.2% in 1960 and 41.8% in 1961
1.2. if his at rim shots FG% was 70%, then it means his non at rim shots % was 22.2% in 1960 and 31.8% in 1961
1.3. if his at rim shots FG% was 80%, then it means his non at rim shots % was 12.2% in 1960 and 21.8% in 1961
2. if 60% of all Wilt's shots were at rim shots then his FG% from all other types of shots would be:
2.1. if his at rim shots FG% was 60%, then it means his not at rim shots % was 25.2% in 1960 and 37.3% in 1961
2.2. if his at rim shots FG% was 70%, then it means his non at rim shots % was 10.2% in 1960 and 22.3% in 1961
2.3. if his at rim shots FG% was 80%, then it means his non at rim shots % was -4.8% ("-" so it means it's impossible he shot 80% at rim and at rim shots were 60% of his all shots that year) in 1960 and 7.3% in 1961
3. if 70% of all Wilt's shots were at rim shots then his FG% from all other types of shots would be:
3.1. if his at rim shots FG% was 60%, then it means his not at rim shots % was 13.6% in 1960 and 29.7% in 1961
3.2. if his at rim shots FG% was 70%, then it means his non at rim shots % was -9.7% ("-" so it's impossible he shot 70% FG% at rim and at rim shots were 70% of his all shots) in 1960 and 6.4% in 1961
3.3. if his at rim shots FG% was 80%, then it means his non at rim shots % was -33.1% in 1960 and -16.9% in 1961 ("-" so in both cases it's impossible he shot 80% at rim and at rim shots were 70% of his all shots)
So 9 possibilities, which one is the most probably? In my opinion 3.1. or 2.2. and the only possibility he was decent (37-42%) "non at rim" shooter is if he shot only 60% at rim (and 60% from that area for big is really bad result) and "at rim" shots were no more than 60% of his all shots.