LMAO Seahawks vs Packers

[HurricaneKid]

As for the league's response, it was LAMBASTED. I truly believe the league could not do ANYTHING. There were up to a BILLION dollars in Packer bets worldwide and the NFL could hardly press any action that would have forced the bookies/casinos/etc pay Packer bets the day after they already paid Seahawk bets. Everyone knew they couldn't change the result the next day, even if some of us were in denial about that.

As for your other question, yes, when Tate's left hand comes OFF THE BALL and he has *maybe* one hand on the ball as it is pulled in and controlled by the defender against his chest I can definitively say it is possessed by Jennings. You are suggesting he controlled the ball in someone else's arms against their body. I have seen plenty of one handed catches. Even made a few myself. I have never heard of one that is made in another guy's arms against his body.

Once Tate removes his left hand I think it is evident he is acknowledging the defender has possession and he is moving to a better position to attempt to gain possession as well.

If you acknowledge the casebook nothing that happens past this point is relevant. Jennings had it first and Tate did not possess the ball until after that point. His feet are irrelevant.

[HurricaneKid]

2 feet or another part of the body are required for possession. That is indisputable.

The word "control", as it relates to a player on 1 foot like Jennings, is a different matter, since your example (which I DID adknowledge) clearly shows the NFL sees control in the air as consequential. The question is whether Jennings can be clearly defined as having control and Tate not control. Despite the fact that Tate has 1 hand on the ball throughout the play (and actually touches the ball first, his left hand is fully grasping the ball before Jennings even touches it http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WDnSdkef ... r_embedded), and that 2 hands are not defined as a requirement for control. The argument that Jennings has control needs both these things to be true a) 2 hands = control, 1 hand = not control AND b) It's still control if an opposing player has a full hand/palm on the ball and another on your body, and if you're merely grabbing it and reeling it in. Neither of these things are defined, so I don't see any justification for saying Jennings clearly had control and Tate didn't

Yeah sorry about that. I was going to go back and change it when I realized a missed a paragraph.

As I said, its a wild leap to say you possess the ball in another guys arms cradled in the other guy's body. Otherwise any pass where the offense and defense go to the ground if the offensive player has his arm in the defender's arms he can claim control and it would be a complete pass. I find this a peculiar stand.