NFL Divisional Playoff Weekend Matchup and Game Discussion

[bwgood77]

24-0 in the 2nd quarter, then KC scored 41 in a row until that Watson TD to make it 41-31...or am I that drunk.

They scored 41 straight, but Houston just answered the last td with a td as you mentioned so they "answered" the last td. What do you think unanswered means, just in a row?

So if you don't think "unanswered" is appropriate because Houston eventually scored, then why did you respond with "34"? The Chiefs didn't end the game on a 34-0 run. Just curious.

Because a score is answered when the opposing team scores next. KC scored 34 points straight without Houston scoring before they scored again. Then they scored another td making it 41 straight, but then Houston answered that score with a td of their own.

It was fine calling it 41 unanswered until Houston scored and "answered". But that last 7 points was answered. It's like calling that the first team that scored in a 7-7 game at the end of the 1st qtr had 7 unanswered points in the 1st quarter. I doubt many people would feel that is correct. That last 7 points being answered after a run is no different, since it was also answered.

[High 5]

Because a score is answered when the opposing team scores next. KC scored 34 points straight without Houston scoring before they scored again. Then they scored another td making it 41 straight, but then Houston answered that score with a td of their own.

It was fine calling it 41 unanswered until Houston scored and "answered". But that last 7 points was answered. It's like calling that the first team that scored in a 7-7 game at the end of the 1st qtr had 7 unanswered points in the 1st quarter. I doubt many people would feel that is correct. That last 7 points being answered after a run is no different, since it was also answered.

Thank you for your explanation. I see where you're coming from and it makes sense, but you're the first person I have ever seen call someone out for using unanswered that way. I think 90+% of people would accept it without a second thought.

[bwgood77]

Because a score is answered when the opposing team scores next. KC scored 34 points straight without Houston scoring before they scored again. Then they scored another td making it 41 straight, but then Houston answered that score with a td of their own.

It was fine calling it 41 unanswered until Houston scored and "answered". But that last 7 points was answered. It's like calling that the first team that scored in a 7-7 game at the end of the 1st qtr had 7 unanswered points in the 1st quarter. I doubt many people would feel that is correct. That last 7 points being answered after a run is no different, since it was also answered.

Thank you for your explanation. I see where you're coming from and it makes sense, but you're the first person I have ever seen call someone out for using unanswered that way. I think 90+% of people would accept it without a second thought.

I think anyone would accept it, because it is commonly used, and also because there were 41 unanswered points, until Houston scored....so it was already said. So people will talk about that.

But at the end of the game I saw graphics that said "41 straight points"...had it ended without Houston scoring it probably would have said "unanswered".

It's obviously me being picky, but using a term like unanswered which is a word specifically created to say "the opposing team never scored" just is misused a ton. I don't think someone like Joe Buck or a seasoned sportscaster would say it after it scored.

However, I also don't think that after 41 points scored straight without an opposing score was made, after broadcasters said "41 unanswered points", they would then revert to "34 unanswered points" but would just switch to "41 consecutive points".